kinky sex and the christian

i don't think there is. i think both are fine. people point to bible verses as teaching about the subject, but the bible verses tend to only discuss male homosexual sex.

 

shhh.... don't spill the beans.

 

so the actual words don't matter? just how they're interpreted today?

so "wicked" can mean "exceptionally good" in the 21st century. should we strive to not be exceptionally good when admonished to not be "wicked"?

 

True, but I think an important factor to keep in mind is that the teachings and the letters were written in a male-dominant society, and written to men primarily. The vast majority of women weren't even literate in that culture, and depended on men to teach them spiritually. If you consider that, it makes sense that women would be somewhat of an afterthought.

 

I think we're mixing arguments a little here. "Sodomy" and its variants are modern English words, not Biblical terms, even though they're rooted in Biblical history.

"Wicked" was used in the Bible, and has a contextual meaning in its usage there. Which definition you choose depends on what you're communicating. There are lots of other words in our modern vocabulary that have very different meanings in different contexts.

 

sure. but then it seems really important to know exactly what a sodomite is. obviously a sodomite in the literal sense is somebody from sodom. if that's the case, then the translation of "sodomite" to "homosexual" is bogus. there is no "sodom" anymore to be from.

if sodomite means somebody who acts as one from sodom, then we really need to know what it was they did in sodom that was so bad. pride, gluttony, laziness. turning their backs on the poor outside. and apparently trying to rape a couple angels. aren't their sins many? perhaps the point was that sodomites aren't people who do a particular thing, but peopel do known sins to excess.

 

The term sodomite was used in the bible many years after the destruction of the city was it not? If so what meaning did it hold at that time? Can you tell by the context of the verse?

 

Excessive sin is the impression I get when I read it, but again, that's just an impression. The apparent glut of homosexual acts within the population seems only part of the whole reason, not the reason itself. Sodomite is a modern word with a modern definition, so I guess it can mean whatever the person who made it up wants it to mean, whether it's historically accurate or not. :huh:

Here's a good example of how the purposes of the Bible are often in conflict with the purposes of the people today. It seems to me that the purpose of the story of Sodom isn't "God destroyed Sodom for homosexuality," it's actually "God destroyed Sodom because it sinned greatly." The details of what and how much become irrelevant from that perspective. It can be very frustrating for us, though.

 

Actually, you are correct, Thelt. I missed it because I never use this translation, but the word "sodomite" is used in the KJV. It appears in 1 and 2 Kings to describe people who practiced the same pagan rituals and ungodly culture of the city states Israel overcame when they took possession of the promised land.

1 Kings 14:24
"And there were also sodomites in the land: and they did according to all the abominations of the nations which the LORD cast out before the children of Israel."

 

I agree with you about homosexuals being born that way. However, when Jesus said that lusting in your heart after a woman is just as much a sin as the act(Mt.5:28), then wouldn't a homosexual's desire be sinful as well?