kinky sex and the christian

Sodomite means "one who is from the city of Sodom". God destroyed Sodom because of its many sins. One of the sins mentioned is homosexuality.

 

Buggery is one of my favorite terms for anal sex. Hi-larious. But the etymology from Anglo-French to Old French to Late Latin to the Bible makes it circular. It seems to me that homosexuality was only ONE of the sins that Saddam, oops, I mean Sodom, commited that displeased God. I actually had no idea it was so broad a term.

 

Correct. I found this about Sodom, too, and it doesn't even mention the gang raping thing.

Ezekiel 16:49
"Sodom's sins were pride, laziness, and gluttony, while the poor and needy suffered outside her door."

There were some wars involved, too, before Abram and Lot even entered the picture that might have added to Sodom's guilt.

 

right. is that still applicable?

you were saying that the sex laws seemed to only apply to christians. i was thinking that paralleled the kosher foods for jews thing. they don't give non-jews grief for not eating kosher, so i figured the parallel would be that christians not give grief to non-christians who don't follow the sex practices.

on the contrary, since homosexual sex is explicit in the men's section, the fact that it doesn't appear in relation to the women implies that's not what they were getting at. in my opinion anyway. (also depends on the translation you read)

 

hmmm.... any thought that this weighs into bush's immigration policy?

 

well, like isaac points out -- the word comes from the bible which comes from the city. to use it to determine what the people of sodom did is a bit circular.

sodomites is used at "queers" so often, but in truth, it could mean guttonous, prideful, and lazy. couldn't it?

 

I'm not sure, actually, now that I think about it. The rest you could see as being moral arguments, but that one is specifically described as 'unclean', and Jesus addressed what defines unclean in the previous verses. I guess when it comes right down to it, I can't really think of a reason why it would still apply.

The vast majority of the OT still applies to Jews, and this part of the Mosaic Law was at least indirectly referenced by Jesus, but that's just my interpretation. As far as it not applying to non-Judeo/Christians, I think that's addressed in Paul's quote about judging those outside the church not being his business, and that he'd let God judge them instead.

I guess the kosher food thing is a pretty good parallel. For them, it is a moral thing. The OT law was more about purity than it was about safety, although safety went hand-in-hand with a lot of those laws. You got to be careful in a nomadic community of over 2 million with no way to treat disease or infection.

I'm curious -- why do you think there would be a difference between male homosexual behavior and female homosexual behavior, from a moral point of view?

 

You know, I seriously wondered about that when I read it.

 

I think you could make that argument, but it would be a lost point in our time and culture. In 21st century America, Sodom is known for male-on-male sex, even if that's an incomplete picture at best.

 

As did I. Not to give Thelt any more ammo but with the legalization and legitimization of homosexuality in America that pretty much checks off the last box on the "becoming Sodom" list, doesn't it? I mean, lack of respect for God, laziness, greed, pride, gluttony, while the poor and needy suffer outside our doors, i.e. Third World? I'm a little depressed now.

Good thread though.